Oral Exam Preparation Questions and Answers
|CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT PLANNING
A. Navigation1. What are three common ways to navigate?To navigate successfully, pilots must know their approximate position at all times or be able to determine it whenever they wish.
Position may be determined by:a. Pilotage (by reference to visible landmarks)
b. Dead reckoning (by computing direction and distance from a known position); or
c. Radio navigation (by use of radio aids).2. What type of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation? (AIM 9-1-4)
a. Sectional Charts – designed for visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft. One inch equals 6.86 nautical miles. They are revised semiannually, except most Alaskan charts which are revised annually.
3. Be capable of locating the following items on a sectional chart:
4. What is an “isogonic line”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Shown on most aeronautical charts as broken magenta lines, isotonic lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation, which from time to time may vary.
5. What is “magnetic variation”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. It is expressed as east variation or west variation depending upon whether magnetic north (MN) is to the east or west of true north (TN), respectively.
6. How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction? (FAA-H-8083-25)
To convert true course or heading to magnetic course or heading, note the variation shown by the nearest isogonic line. If variation is west, add; if east, subtract.
Remember : East is Least (Subtract)
7. What are lines of latitude and longitude? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Circles parallel to the equator (lines running east and west), parallels of latitude, enable us to measure distance in degrees latitude north or south of the equator. Meridians of longitude are drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole and are at right angles to the equator. The “Prime Meridian”, which passes through Greenwich, England, is used as the zero line from which measurements are made in degrees east and west to 180°. The 48 conterminous states of the United States lie between 25 degrees and 49 degrees north latitude and between 67 degrees and 125 degrees west longitude.
8. What is “magnetic deviation”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Because of magnetic influences within the airplane itself (electrical circuits, radios, lights, tools, engine, magnetized metal parts, etc.) the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading. This deflection is called deviation. Deviation is different for each airplane, and also varies for different headings of the same airplane. The deviation value may be found on a deviation card located in the airplane.
9. Name several types of radio aids to air navigation. (AIM 1-1-2 through 1-1-7, and 1-1-23)
a. NDB (Non-directional Radio Beacon)
10. What is a “VOR” or “VORTAC”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
VORs are VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360°) from the station, like spokes from the hub of a wheel. Each of these radials is denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR stations will also be VORTACs. A VORTAC (VOR-Tactical Air Navigation), provides the standard bearing information of a VOR plus distance information to pilots of airplanes which have distance measuring equipment (DME).
11. Within what frequency range do VORs operate? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Transmitting frequencies of Omni range stations are in the VHF (very high frequency) band between 108 and 117.95 MHz, which are immediately below aviation communication frequencies.
12. What is a VOR “radial”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
A “radial” is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending from an Omni directional range (VOR). A VOR projects 360 radials from the station. These radials are always identified by their direction “from” the station. Regardless of heading, an aircraft on the 360° radial will always be located north of the station.
13. How are VOR NAVAIDs classified? (AIM 1-1-8)
Terminal, Low, and High
14. What reception distances can be expected from the various class VORs? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Class Distance/Altitudes Miles
15. What limitations, if any, apply to VOR reception distances? (AIM 1-1-3)
VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.
16. What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment? (14 CFR 91.171)
a. VOT check – plus or minus 4°
17. What is an “NDB”? (AIM 1-1-2)
A non-directional beacon; a low-to medium-frequency radio beacon transmits non-directional signals where by the pilot of an aircraft properly equipped can determine bearings and “home” or “tract” to the station.
18. Within what frequency range do NDBs operate? (AIM 1-1-2)
These facilities normally operate in the frequency band of 190 to 535 kHz (immediately below AM broadcast bands) and transmit a continuous carrier with wither 400 or 1020 Hz modulation. All radio beacons, except compass locators, transmit a continuous three-letter identification code.
19. What is “ADF”? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Automatic Direction Finder – Many general aviation-type airplanes are equipped with automatic direction finder (ADF) radio receiving equipment which operate in the low to medium frequency bands. To navigate using the ADF, the pilot tunes the receiving equipment to a ground station known as a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB). The most common use of ADF is that of “homing” by flying the needle to the station.
20. What are some of the advantages / disadvantages when using ADF for navigation? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Advantages : Low cost of equipment and usually very low maintenance; Low or medium frequencies are not affected by line-of-sight; The signals follow the curvature of the earth; therefore, if the aircraft is within range of the station, the signals can be received regardless of altitude.
Disadvantages: Low frequency signals are very susceptible to electrical disturbances, such as lightning, precipitation static, etc.; These disturbances create excessive static, needle deviations, and signal fades; Particularly at night, there may be interference from distant stations.
21. What are the normal usable service ranges for the various class NDBs? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Compass locator under 25 watts 15NM
Area Navigation (RNAV) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot. RNAV equipment can compute the airplane position, actual tract and ground speed, and then provide meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical equipment will provide the pilot with distance, time, bearing and cross track error relative to the selected “TO” or “active” waypoint and the selected route. Several distinctly different navigational systems with different navigational performance characteristics are capable of providing RNAV functions. Present day RNAV systems include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS.
23. What is “DME”? (AIM 1-1-7)
Distance Measuring Equipment (airborne and ground) – used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. DME operates on frequencies in the UHF spectrum between 960 MHz and 1215 MHz.
24. What is “GPS”? (AIM Glossary)
Global Positioning System – a space-based radio positioning, navigation, and time-transfer system. The system provides highly accurate position and velocity information, and precise time, on a continuous global basis to an unlimited number of properly equipped users. The system is unaffected by weather, and provides a worldwide common grid reference system. The GPS concept is predicated upon accurate and continuous knowledge of the spatial position of each satellite in the system with respect to time and distance from a transmitting satellite to the user. The GPS receiver automatically selects appropriate signals from satellites in view and translates these into three-dimensional position, velocity, and time. System accuracy for civil users is normally 100 meters horizontally.
B. Flight Computers and Basic Calculations
1. Before attempting a cross-country flight, a pilot will need to know how to make common calculations for time, speed, distance, amount of fuel required, as well as basic wind calculations. Solve the following:
Time, speed and distance problems:
Fuel Consumption problems
a. If gallons-per-hour is 9.3 and time is 1 hour, 27 minutes, how many gallons will be consumed?
b. If time is 2 hours, 13 minutes and gallons consumed is 32, what will the gallons-per-hour be?
c. If gallons consumed is 38 and gallons-per-hour is 10.8, what will the time be?
True airspeed problems
a. If altitude is 10,000 feet, temperature is 0°C, and IAS is 115, what will the TAS be?
b. If IAS is 103, altitude is 6,000 feet, and the temperature is -10°C, what will the TAS be?\
c. If the temperature is 40°F, the IAS is 115, and the altitude is 11,000 feet, what will the TAS be?
Density altitude problems
b. If pressure altitude is 5,000 feet and eh temperature is -10°C, what will the density altitude be?
c. If the pressure altitude is 2,000 feet and the temperature is 30°C, what will the density altitude be?
b. If wind direction is 240, wind speed is 025, true course is 283 and TAS is 165, what will ground speed and true heading be?
c. If wind direction is 060, wind speed is 030, true course is 036 and TAS is 140, what will ground speed and true heading be?
a. Ground speed is 124, true heading is 158.
2. Flight log example, VFR flight plan:
Careful preflight planning is extremely important. A wise pilot ensures a successful cross-country flight by getting a good preflight briefing, completing a flight log, and filing a flight plan before flight.
a. Get a preflight briefing consisting of latest or most current weather, airport, and en route NAVAID information.
3. Diversion to Alternate / Lost Procedures:
a. What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight?
Condition II : low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning.
The FAA recommends, the use of the “4 Cs”:
c. What is “DF guidance”? (AIM Glossary)
DF guidance is given to aircraft in distress or to other aircraft that request the service. Headings are provided to the aircraft by facilities equipped with direction finding equipment. Following these headings will lead the aircraft to predetermined point such as the DF station or an airport. DF guidance for practice is provided when workload permits.
d. While en route on a cross-country flight, weather has deteriorated and it becomes necessary to divert to an alternate airport. What is the recommended procedures?
• Mark your present position on the chart; write the current time next to your mark.
C. Radio Communications
1. What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft? How many channels are available? (FAA-H-8083-25)
In general aviation, the most common types of radios are VHF. A VHF radio operates on frequencies between 118.0 and 136.975 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760 depending on the number of channels it can accommodate. The 720 and 760 uses .025 spacing (118.025,118.050, etc.) with the 720 having a frequency range up to 135.975 and the 760 going up to 136.975.
2. What is the universal VHF “Emergency” frequency? (AIM 6-3-1)
121.5 MHz; this frequency is guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS’s, and radar facilities.
3. What frequencies are used for ground control? (FAA-H-8083-25)
The majority of ground control frequencies are 121.6 to 121.9 MHz.
4. What is a “CTAF”? (AIM 4-1-9)
A CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.
5. What is “UNICOM”, and what frequencies are designated for its use? (AIM 4-1-9)
UNICOM is a non-government communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports. Airports other than those with a control tower / FSS on airport will normally use 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050, and 123.075 MHz. Airports with a control tower or an FSS on airport will normally is 122.950 MHz.
6. What does “ATIS” mean? (AIM 4-1-13)
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information.
7. If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed? (AIM 4-1-9, Glossary)
Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. MULTICOM is a mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activities being performed by or directed from private aircraft.
8. What frequencies are monitored by most FSS’s other than 121.5? (AIM 4-2-14)
FSS’s and supplemental weather service locations are allocated frequencie3s for different functions; for example, 122.0 MHz is assigned as the En route Flight Advisory Service frequency at selected FSS’s. In addition, certain FSS’s provide Local Airport Advisory on 123.6 MHz. Frequencies are listed in the Airport / Facility Directory. If you are in doubt as to what frequency to use, 122.2 MHz is assigned to the majority of FSS’s as a common en route simplex frequency.
9. What is “Local Airport Advisory Service”? (AIM 4-1-9)
Certain FSS’s provide Local Airport Advisory service to pilots when an FSS is physically located on an airport which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operated on a part-time basis. The CTAF (usually 123.6) for FSS’s which provide this service will be disseminated in appropriate aeronautical publications. A CTAF FSS provides wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, altimeter setting, known traffic, notices to airmen, airport taxi routes, airport traffic pattern information, and instrument approach procedures. The information is advisory in nature and does not constitute an ATC clearance.
10. How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne?
11. What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency? (Chart Legend)
A heavy-lined blue box surrounding the radio station data indicates that both standard FSS frequencies are available at all altitudes without terrain interference. The standard frequencies are 121.5 and 122.2.
12. Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box? (Chart Legend)
This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.
13. What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency? (Chart Legend)
A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. These NAVAIDs will have a “no voice” symbol (underline under frequency).
14. Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box? (Chart Legend)
These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site, and will ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low altitudes without terrain interference. They will normally be followed by an “R” which indicates that the FSS can receive only on that frequency (you transmit on that frequency). The pilot will listen for a response over the NAVAID frequency.
15. How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR Sectional chart? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on sectional charts with an “H” in the upper right corner of the identification box.
16. What meaning does the letter “T” in a solid blue circle appearing in the top right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have? (Chart Legend)
A Transcribed Weather Broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.
D. Federal Aviation Regulations Part 91
1. If an in flight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have? (14 CFR 91.3)
a. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
2. What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol? (14 CFR 91.17)
No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft:
3. Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried abroad an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.17)
No. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.
4. May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)
Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.
5. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.15)
No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
6. Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of ? (14 CFR 91.103)
Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.
7. Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information? ( 14 CFR 91.103)
For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport:
8. Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when? (14 CFR 91.107)
Each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing. However a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting any use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.
9. What responsibility does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts? (14 CFR 91.107)
No pilot may take off a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff or landing.
10. When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harness fastened? (14 CFR 91.105)
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crew member shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing this includes shoulder harness, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.
11. If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, such as formation flight, what regulations apply? (14 CFR 91.111)
a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
12. What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft? (14 CFR 91.113)
13. When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic? (14 CFR 91.113)
An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
14. State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below. (14 CFR 91.113)
Converging : aircraft on right has the right-of-way.
15. What right-of-way rules apply when two or more aircrafts are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing? (14 CFR 91.113)
Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to may way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.
16. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? (14 CFR 91.117)
No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH).
17. What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city? (14 CFR 91.119)
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
18. In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used? (14 CFR 91.119)
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
19. Define “minimum safe altitude”. (14 CFR 91.119)
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
20. What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or Forest Service Area? (AIM 7-4-6)
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.
21. When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure? (14 CFR 91.121)
When the barometric pressure is 31.00” Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight operating an aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00” Hg, consult the Aeronautical Information Manual for correct procedures.
22. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used? (14 CFR 91.121)
Use the same procedures as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.
23. When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction? (14 CFR 91.123)
No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless:
24. As pilot-in-command, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given? (14 CFR 91.123)
Two actions are required of you as PIC:
25. In the event of radio failure while operating an aircraft to, from, through or on an aircraft having an operational tower, what are the different types and meanings of light gun signals you might receive from an ATC tower? (14 CFR 91.125)
Light On Ground In Air
Note: Most pilots find these hard to remember; attach them to your kneeboard or your flight log form.
26. If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport? (14 CFR 91.126, 91.127, 91.129)
a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
27. What procedures should b3e used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitted or receiver or both are inoperative? (AIM 4-2-13)
Arriving Aircraft Receiver Inoperative:
Arriving Aircraft Transmitter Inoperative:
Arriving Aircraft Transmitter and Receiver Inoperative:
Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall:
29. What procedures should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator? (14 CFR 91.129)
Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
30. What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night? (14 CFR 91.151)
No person may begin in a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
31. What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day? (14 CFR 91.151)
During the day, you must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.
32. When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000 feet above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown? (14 CFR 91.159)
When operating above 3, 000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0° to 179°, fly at an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180° to 359°, fly at an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
33. What instruments and equipments are required for VFR day flight? (14 CFR 91.205)
For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipments are required:
Tachometer for each engine
Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank
34. What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight? (14 CFR 91.205)
For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following:
Fuses – one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight
35. What is an “ELT”? (AIM Glossary)
Emergency Locator Transmitter – A radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operates from its own power source on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. It aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-seeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. It is designed to function without human action after an accident. It can be operationally tested during the first 5 minutes after any hour.
36. Is an emergency locator transmitter required on all aircraft? (14 CFR 91.207)
No person may operate a U.S. registered civil airplane unless there is attached to the airplane an automatic-type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition. Several exception exists, including the following:
37. When must the batteries in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? (14 CFR 91.207)
Batteries used in ELTs must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable):
Note: The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. This date indicates 50% of the battery’s useful life.
38. What are the regulations concerning use of supplement oxygen on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)
a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL: for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen.
39. According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted? (14 CFR 91.303)
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight:
40. Define aerobatic flight. (14 CFR 91.303)
For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s altitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.
41. When are parachutes required on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.307)
a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crew member) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds:
1. What is Class A airspace? (AIM 3-2-2)
Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
2. Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)
No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must operate that aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR).
3. What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)
The pilot must be at least a private pilot with an instrument rating.
4. What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)
a. A two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned.
5. How is class A airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-2)
Class A airspace is not specifically charted.
6. What is the definition of Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.
7. What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.131)
No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless:
Certain Class B airspace areas do not allow pilot operations to be conducted to or from the primary airport, unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate (example : Dallas / Fort Worth International).
8. What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.131)
a. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area.
9. Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace, what basic requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.131)
Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.
10. What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations with Class B airspace? ( 14 CFR 91.155)
VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with at least 3 statue miles flight visibility.
11. How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-3)
Class B airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Chars. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top, i.e. 100/25, 100/SFC.
12. What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)
VFR plans will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.
13. It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence? (AIM 3-2-3)
The pilot-in-command is responsible. The services provided by ATC do not relieve pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake turbulence encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance, or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum required by 14 CFR 91.155.
14. What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area? (14 CFR 91.117)
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the “below 10,000 feet MSL” restriction: “No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots”.
15. When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, what maximum speed is authorized? (14 CFR 91.117)
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH)
16. What is Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
17. What are the basic dimensions of Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)
Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. The outer area radius will be 20 NM, with some variations based on site specific requirements. The outer area extends outward from the primary airport and extends from the lower limits of radar / radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach controls airspace.
18. What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)
A student pilot certificate.
19. What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace? (14 CFR 91.130, 91.215)
Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the following:
20. When operating an aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.130)
Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
21. Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entering Class C airspace. Define what is meant by “ established”. In this context. (AIM 3-2-4)
If a controller responds to a radio call with, “(aircraft call sign) standby,” radio communications have been established. It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft identification, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class C airspace.
22. When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class C airspace, what requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.130)
Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.
23. What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class C airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)
VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.
24. How is Class C airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-4)
A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace. Class C airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts where appropriate.
25. What type of Air Traffic Control services are provided when operating within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)
When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all participating VFR aircraft are:
26. Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft. (AIM 4-1-17)
Basic radar service – Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement.
TRSA service – radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA.
Class C service – This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.
Class B service – Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).
27. Where is Mode C altitude encoding transponder equipment required? (AIM 4-1-19)
a. At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding that airspace below 2,500 feet AGL.
28. What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area at an indicated speed of more than 200 knots (23 MPH).
29. What is Class D airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be signed to contain those procedures.
30. When operating an aircraft through Class D airspace or to an airport within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.129)
Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
31. When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met? (14 CFR 91.129)
Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.
32. Is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a Class D arrival extension area? (AIM 3-2-5, 3-2-6)
Arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures may be Class D or Class E airspace. As a general rule, if all extensions are 2 miles or less, they remain part of the Class D surface area (blue segmented line). However, if any one extension is greater than 2 miles, then all extensions become Class E, Class E airspace areas that serve a s extensions (magenta segmented line) to Class B, Class C, Class D surface areas, provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR.
33. What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class D airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)
VFR flight operations within Class D airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.
34. How is Class D airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-5)
Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines, and on IFR En route Lows with a boxed [D].
35. What type of Air Traffic Control services are provided when operating within Class D airspace? (AIM 3-2-5, 5-5-8, and 5-5-10)
No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of the type of flight plan or whether or not under the control of a radar facility, the pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain or obstacles. A controller, on a workload permitting basis, will provide radar traffic information, safety alerts and traffic information for sequencing purposes.
36. What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class D airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).
37. When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)
During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the A/FD for specifics.
38. Will all airports with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace surrounding them? (AIM 4-3-2)
No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally begins at 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts.
39. What is the definition of Class E (controlled) airspace? (AIM 3-2-6)
Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and t is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace.
40. State several examples of Class E airspace. (AIM 3-2-6)
a. A surface area designated for an airport and configured TO CONTAIN ALL INSTRUMENT APPROACHES.
41. What are the operating rules and pilot / equipment requirements to operate within Class E airspace? (AIM 3-2-6)
a. Minimum pilot certification – student pilot certificate.
42. What basic operational requirement must be met if flight operations are to be conducted into a Class E surface area located at a non-tower airport with a prescribed instrument approach? (AIM 3-2-6)
As long as the weather allows flight operations to be conducted under basic VFR minimums, a flight into or out of the Class E airspace may be made without an ATC clearance. However, if basic VFR minimum cannot be maintained an ATC clearance will be necessary for arrival or departure (Special VFR clearance).
43. Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class E airspace? (14 CFR 91.127)
Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
44. How is Class E airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-6; 14 CFR 71371; NACO)
Class E airspace below 14,500 feet MSL is charted on Sectional, Terminal, and IFR En Route Low Altitude charts. The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including 18,000 feet are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and Terminal Area Charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700 feet AGL are defined by a magenta vignette; floors other than 700 feet that abut uncontrolled airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700 feet AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor. If the ceiling is less than, 18,000 feet MSL, the value (prefixed by the word “ceiling”) is shown along the limits of the controlled airspace.
45. How are Class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts? (NACO)
Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace are depicted by a magenta segmented line.
46. What is the definition of Class G airspace? (AIM 3-3-1)
Class G or uncontrolled airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.
47. Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class G airspace? (14 CFR 91.126)
Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 AGL.
48. What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace? (FAA-H-8083-25)
Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL.
49. What is the minimum cloud clearance and visibility required when conducting flight operations in a traffic pattern at night in Class G airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)
When the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.
50. What is the main difference between Class G airspace and Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace?
The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace is the flight visibility / cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it.
51. What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations? (14 CFR 91.155)
Class C, D, or E Airspace
At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
Class G Airspace
More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:
More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:
52. What are the “basic” VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)
No person may operate an aircraft, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and the ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.
53. If VFR flight minimums cannot be maintained, can a VFR flight be made into Class B, C, D, or E airspace? (AIM 4-4-5)
No, with one exception. A “Special VFR clearance” may be obtained from the controlling authority prior to entering the Class B, C, D, or E airspace provided the flight can be made clear of clouds with at least one statute mile ground visibility if taking off or landing. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, the flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile.
54. Are Special VFR clearances always available to pilots in all classes of airspace? (AIM 4-4-5)
A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations.
Note: Special VFR operations by fixed wing aircraft are prohibited in some Class B and Class C surface areas due to the volume of IFR traffic. A list of these Class B and Class C surface areas is contained in 14 CFR Part 91. They are also depicted on Sectional Aeronautical Charts.
55. If it becomes apparent that a spe4cial VFR clearance will be necessary, what facility should the pilot contact in order to obtain one? (AIM 4-4-5)
When a control tower is located within a Class B, Class C, or Class D surface areas, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center.
56. Can a “Special VFR clearance” be obtained into or out of Class B, C, D, or E airspace at night? (AIM 4-4-5)
Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.
57. What is a “Prohibited Area”? (AIM 3-4-2)
Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.
58. What is a “Restricted Area”? (AIM3-4-3)
Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards, to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.
59. Under what conditions, if any, may pilots enter restricted or prohibited areas? (14 CFR 91.133)
No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted within a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.
60. What is a “Warning Area”? (AIM 3-4-4)
A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions extending from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn non-participating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters, or both.
61. What is a “MOA”? (AIM 3-4-5)
A Military Operating Area (MOA) consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active / inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSs within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.
62. What is an “Alert Area”? (AIM 3-4-6)
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas. All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.
63. What are “Controlled Firing Areas”? (AIM 3-4-7)
Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs) contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.
64. What is a “National Security Area”? (AIM 3-5-7)
National Security Areas consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR 99.7.
65. Where can information on special use airspace be found? (AIM 3-4-1)
Special use airspace (except CFAs) are charted on IFR or visual charts and include the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency.
66. Where can a pilot find information on VFR flyways, VFR Corridors, Class B airspace transition routes, and Terminal Area VFR routes used to transition busy terminal airspace? (AIM 3-5-5)
Information will normally be depicted on the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts, commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts.
67. What is an “Airport Advisory Area”? (AIM 3-5-1)
An airport advisory area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located. At such locations, the FSS provides advisory service to arriving aircraft. It is not mandatory that pilots participate in the Airport Advisory program, but it is strongly recommended they do so.
68. What are “Military Training Routes”? (AIM 3-5-2)
Military Training Routes are developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high speed training. The routes above 1,500 feet AGL are developed to be flown, to the maximum extent possible, under IFR. The routes at 1,500 feet AGL and below are generally developed to be flown under VFR. Routes below 1,500 feet AGL use four-digit identifiers (i.e. IR 1004, VR 1008). Routes above 1,500 feet AGL use three-digit identifiers, (i.e. IR 1003, VR 004). IR is for IFR routes and VR is for VFR routes.
69. What is a “TSRA”? (AIM Glossary)
70. What class of airspace is a “TRSA”? (AIM 3-5-6)
TRSAs do not fit into any of the U.S. airspace classes and are not contained in 14 CFR Part 71 nor are there any operating rules in Part 91. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become Class D airspace. The remaining portion of a TRSA overlies other controlled airspace which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 feet and established to transition to/from the en route / terminal environment. TRSAs will continue to be an airspace area where participating pilots can receive additional radar services which have been defined as TRSA service.
71. How are TRSAs depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-5-6)
TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.
72. What is an “ADIZ”? (AIM 5-6-1)
All aircraft entering domestic U.S. airspace from points outside must provide for identification prior to entry. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. and international airspace boundaries, Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) have been established.
73. What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ? (AIM 5-6-1)
Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows:
F. Airspace Classification Summary
The following section summarizes the requirements for operations within the various airspace classes.
1. Discuss “Class A” airspace.
Vertical dimensions 18,000 ft MSL up to and include FL600
2. Discuss “Class B” airspace
Vertical dimensions Surface to 10,000 ft MSL
3. Discuss “Class C” airspace.
Vertical dimensions Surface to 4,000 ft AGL (charted MSL)
4. Discuss “Class D” airspace.
Vertical dimensions Surface to 2,500 ft AGL (charted MSL)
5. Discuss “Class E” airspace.
Vertical dimensions Except for 18,000 feet MSL, no defined vertical limit. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace.
6. Discuss “Class G” airspace.
Vertical dimensions Surface up to the overlying controlled (class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL
G. National Transportation Safety Board
1. When is immediate notification to the NTSB required? (NTSB Part 830.5)
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur:
2. Define “aircraft incident”. (NTSB Part 830.2)
An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
3. Define “aircraft accident”. (NTSB Part 830.2)
An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
4. Define the term “serious injury”. (NTSB Part 830.2)
Serious injury means any injury that:
5. Define the term “substantial damage”. (NTSB Part 830.2)
“Substantial damage” means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairings or cowling; dented skin; small punctured holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part.
6. Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft “accident” even if there were no injuries? (NTSB Part 830)
Refer to the definition of “Accident”. An aircraft accident can involve substantial damage and / or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.
7. Where are accident or incident reports filed? (NTSB Part 830)
The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the field office of the Board nearest the accident or incident. The National Transportation Safety Board field offices are listed in the U.S. government pages of telephone directories in major cities.
8. After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB? (NTSB Part 830)
The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1/2, available from NTSB field offices, the NTSB in Washington D.C., or the FAA Flight Standards District Office:
The FAA will not use reports submitted to NASA under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program (or information derived there from) in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program/ By submitting a report within 10 days following an incident, the pilot is not protected from the FAA finding a violation of regulation, but may be providing himself some immunity from a civil penalty or possible suspension of certificate.
H. Aeronautical Information Manual
1. What type of aeronautical lighting is “VASI”? (AIM 2-1-2)
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance information during the approach to a runway. The basic principle of VASI is that of color differential between red and white: each light projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper half and a red segment in the lower part of the beam. The lights in a two-bar VASI will be as follows:
2. What is “PAPI”? (AIM 2-1-2)
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI, but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units are normally installed on the left side of the runway.
3. What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of day light indicate? (AIM 2-1-8)
In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of day light often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and / or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for day light operation and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.
4. What are the six types of signs installed at airports? (FAA-H-8083-25)
a. Mandatory instruction sign – red background / white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area.
5. What color are runway markings? Taxiway markings? (AIM 2-3-2)
Markings for runways are white. Markings for taxiways, areas not intended for use by aircraft (closed and hazardous area), and holding positions (even if they are on a runway) are yellow.
6. What airport marking aids will be used to indicate the following? (AIM 2-3-2 through 2-3-6)
Runway Threshold Markings – These come in two configurations. They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing.
Displaced Threshold – A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. A displaced threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction. A ten-foot wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.
Runway Hold Position Markings – For taxiways, these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed on top the runway. They are also installed on runways only if the runway is normally used by air traffic control for “land, hold short” operations. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway.
Temporarily closed runways and taxiways – Provides a visual indication to pilots that a runway / taxi way is temporarily closed. Yellow crosses are placed on the runway only at each end of the runway. Closed taxiways are blocked with barricades or may utilize a yellow cross at the entrance to the taxiway.
Permanently closed runways and taxiways – For runways and taxiways which are permanently closed, the lighting circuits will be disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow crosses are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000-foot intervals.
7. What are the different methods a pilot may use to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-1-9, 4-3-3)
a. At an airport with a full- or part-time FSS or a full- or part-time UNICOM in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs, etc.
8. What is the standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing? (AIM 4-3-3)
When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right.
9. What is considered standard for traffic pattern altitude? (AIM 4-3-4)
Unless otherwise established, 1,000 feet AGL is the recommended traffic pattern altitude. At most airports and military air bases, traffic pattern altitudes for propeller-driven aircraft generally extend from 600 feet to as high as 1,500 feet AGL. Also, traffic pattern altitudes for military turbojet aircraft sometimes extend up to 2,500 feet AGL.
10. What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-3-3)
A pilot should plan to enter the traffic pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn ( to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.
11. If in doubt about the traffic pattern altitude for a particular airport, what publication can provide this information?
The Airport / Facility Directory.
12. What is an “ARTCC”, and what useful service can it provide to VFR flights? (AIM Glossary)
An “Air Route Traffic Control Center” is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air Route Surveillance Radar allows them the capability to detect and display an aircraft’s position while en route between terminal areas. When equipments capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory / assistance service may be provided to VFR aircraft (VFR Flight Following). Frequencies may be obtained from the local FSS or the Airport / Facility Directory.
13. What are the following transponder codes? (AIM 4-1-19, 6-4-2)
1200 – VFR operations
14. When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4-3-2)
When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas, unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport. Also, not all airports with an operating control tower will have Class D airspace. These airports do not have weather reporting, which is a requirement for surface-based controlled airspace. Pilots are expected to use good operating practices and communicate with the control tower.
15. What communication procedures are recommended when departing a Class D airspace area? (AIM 4-3-2)
Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.
16. How do you convert from standard time to coordinated universal time? (AIM 4-2-12)
You should take the local time (converted to military time) and add the time differential to convert to UTC.
17. Arrange the radio facilities listed below in the order they would be used when operating into or out of a tower controlled airport within Class B, C, or D airspace.
Arriving Aircraft : ATIS, Approach Control, Control Tower, Ground Control.
18. If instructed by ground control to “taxi to” the active runway, can you taxi across a runway if necessary? (AIM 4-3-18)
When ATC clears an aircraft to “taxi to” an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions authorizes the aircraft to “cross” all runways and taxiways which the taxi route intersects except the assigned take off runway.
19. What are “NOTAMs”? (AIM 5-1-3)
Notices To Airmen (NOTAM) – time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature, or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System. This is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids. ILS’s radar service availability and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
20. What are the three categories of NOTAMs? (AIM 5-1-3)
There are three types of NOTAMs generated by the FAA:
21. What particular types of NOTAMs will be omitted in a pilot briefing if not specifically requested by the pilot? (AIM 7-1-4)
NOTAM (D) information and FDC NOTAMs published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP) are not included in pilot briefings unless the pilot specifically requests it. Also, NOTAM (L) information is distributed locally only and is not attached to the hourly weather reports. A separate file of local NOTAMs is maintained at each FSS for facilities in their area only. NOTAM (L) information for other FSS areas must be specifically requested directly from the FSS responsible for the airport concerned.
22. What is the purpose for establishing a temporary flight restrictions (TFR) area? (14 CFR 91.145; AIM 3-5-3)
The FAA will issue a NOTAM designating an area in which a temporary flight restriction (TFR) applies when it determines that this is necessary to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air, to maintain air safety and efficiency, or to prevent the unsafe congestion of aircraft in the vicinity of an aerial demonstration or major sporting event. Always check for appropriate NOTAMs during flight planning.
23. Where can NOTAM information be obtained? (AIM 5-1-3)
a. Nearest FSS
24. When are VFR flight plans required to be filed? (AIM 5-1-4)
Except for operations in or penetrating a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ, a flight plan is not required for VFR flight; however, it is strongly recommended that one be filed with an FAA FSS when making extended cross-country flights. This will ensure that you receive VFR Search and Rescue Protection.
25. What is a DVFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-5)
Defense VFR; VFR flights into a Coastal or Domestic ADIZ / DEWIZ are required to file VFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.
26. When you land at an airport with an ATC tower in operation will the tower automatically close your flight plan? (AIM 5-1-12)
Control towers do not automatically close VFR or DVFR flight plans since they do not know if a particular VFR aircraft is on a flight plan. A pilot is responsible for ensuring that his/her VFR or DVFR flight plan is canceled. You should close your flight plan with the nearest FSS, or if one is available, you may request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation.
27. If your flight is behind schedule, and you do not report the delay, or you forget to close your flight plan, how much time from ETA does the FSS allow before search and rescue efforts are begun? (AIM 5-1-12)
If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within one-half hour after your ETA, Search and Rescue procedures are started.
28. What is wake turbulence? (AIM Glossary)
A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term included vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blast, jest wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash, both on the ground and in the air.
29. Where are wake turbulence and wingtip vortices likely to occur? (AIM 7-3-3)
All aircraft generate turbulence and associated wingtip vortices. In general, avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, especially at low altitudes. Also of concern is the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is HEAVY, CLAN and SLOW.
30. What operational procedures should be followed when wake vortices are suspected to exist? (AIM 7-3-6)
a. Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway: Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
31. What are several examples of illusions that may lead to landing errors? (AIM 8-1-5)
Runway width illusion – A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. A wider-than-usual runway can have opposite effect, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.
32. The acronym “LAHSO” refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4-3-11)
LAHSO is an acronym for “land and hold short operations”. At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot-in-command determines the aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing distance (ALD). Student pilot or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety or if weather is below basic VFR conditions (a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 SM visibility).
33. Where can available landing distance (ALD) data be found? (AIM 4-3-11)
ALD data are published in the special notices section of the A/FD and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.
34. Where are runway incursions most likely to occur? (FSAT 00-09)
The runway incursions that are most likely to cause accidents generally occur at complex, high-volume airports such as those with parallel / intersecting runways, multiple taxiway / runway intersections, complex taxi patterns, and the need for traffic to cross active runways. Historical data also shows that a disproportionately large number of runway incursions involve general aviation pilots and often result from misunderstood controller instructions, confusion, disorientation, and / or inattention. Early all runway incursions are caused by human error.
35. What are several recommended practices concerning prevention of runway incursions? (FSAT 00-09)
a. Read back all runway crossing and / or hold short instructions.
36. Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations. (FAA-H-8083-25)
a. Before takeoff – Prior to taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas.